Hi! I’ve seen a couple of english-speakers use the term “person” and then use the pronoun “she” to refer to the aforementionned person even though it seems to be intended as gender neutral, I’m just wondering if you know where this usage comes from? I always…
“I’d like you to remember the last time you found it difficult to give an explicit “no” to somebody in a non-sexual context. Maybe they asked you to do them a favour, or to join them for a drink. Did you speak up and say, outright, “No?” Did you apologise for your “no?” Did you qualify it and say, “Oh, I’m sorry, I can’t make it today?” If you gave an outright “no,” what privileged positions do you occupy in society, and how does your answer differ from the answers of people occupying more marginalised positions? This form of refusal was analysed in 1999 by Kitzinger and Frith (K&F) in Just Say No? The Use of Conversation Analysis in Developing a Feminist Perspective on Sexual Refusal. Despite the seeming ambiguity in question/refusal acts like, “We were wondering if you wanted to come over Saturday for dinner,” “Well, uhh, it’d be great but we promised Carol already,” they are widely understood by the participants as straightforward refusals. K&F conclude by saying that, “For men to claim [in a sexual context] that they do not ‘understand’ such refusals to be refusals (because, for example, they do not include the word ‘no’) is to lay claim to an astounding and implausible ignorance of normative conversational patterns.””—Under Duress: Agency, Power, and Consent
(via home-of-amazons)
This is a really interesting application of conversation analysis, an approach to interpersonal interaction, which is used across linguistics, sociology, anthropology, speech-communication and psychology.
The study in its entirety is quite interesting, if you can get past the paywall. Some fairly long excerpts from it below about what acceptance and rejection look like in conversation, because it was too interesting to cut.

![wugs:
[English Translation]
<Sundance> Fantastic.<Sundance> I am, among other things, on a forum where some French speakers are trying to teach French to Americans.<Sundance> The other day, a question was posed to us.<Sundance> Is it necessary to say “Of all bats, Batman is the (masculine) best” or “Of all bats, Batman is the (feminine) best”? [Note: The French word for bat, chauve-souris, is feminine, and French grammar almost always demands gender agreement.]<Sundance> Because, well…femininity and Batman, heh… they go together like “social justice” and “Claude Guéant”.<Sundance> In order to resolve this tricky problem, I had an idea.<Sundance> I mailed the French Academy [the legal and official authority on the French language] to ask.<Sundance> …and I just got a response. :><Sundance> I quote:<Sundance> One uses “the best (feminine)”. This grammatical necessity does not at all affect the masculinity of the Batman (nor, indeed, of his relations, more or less platonic, with Robin).<djcoin> Epic
source](http://25.media.tumblr.com/tumblr_m99553jXra1qefrx2o1_500.png)